Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
10.06.2025 09:18
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Why did my ex-narcissist move so fast with his new supply marriage engagement moving in, etc.?
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
There's no rule.
Do very hot men ever feel attracted to an ugly woman? Why?
You'll usually find your answer there.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.